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There was a single right fallopian tube tumor with two distinct morphologies. The diagnosis comment states, “The combined morphologic and immunohistochemical features are best classified as primary fallopian tube high grade serous carcinoma with a somatically derived yolk sac tumor.”

The bone marrow was involved by lambda-restricted atypical B-cell and plasma cell populations with MYD88 mutation. Together these populations represent 10-15% of the bone marrow cellularity. While the bone marrow biopsy pathology alone did not provide a reportable diagnosis, the oncologist clinically diagnosed this as smoldering WM in the medical record.

Is a diagnosis of smoldering WM similar to a diagnosis of smoldering multiple myeloma (MM), a reportable Heme neoplasm, since smoldering neoplasms may be considered to meet the neoplasm’s threshold in the bone marrow but is otherwise asymptomatic?

We are increasingly seeing pathologists use this terminology to describe WHO G2 meningiomas, but the histology term "Atypical meningioma" is not being used, and a more specific "Histological Classification" of other WHO Grade 2 meningiomas (i.e., chordoid or clear cell meningioma) is not given. Can the combination of meningioma, WHO Grade 2 plus the histological classification listing multiple features of an atypical meningioma be used to code morphology to 9539/1? Or is this just a meningioma, NOS 9530/0 despite the WHO Grade 2 classification?

In 01/2023, right lower lobectomy final diagnosis proved a single adenocarcinoma tumor with the histological patterns described as acinar (20%), papillary (30%) and solid; complex glands (cribriform and fused glands) (50%). There is no H Rule applicable to a complex glandular pattern adenocarcinoma. Is this equivalent to a solid predominant adenocarcinoma (8230) per Rule H7? Or is the predominant adenocarcinoma a mixed subtype coded as 8255 per Rule H9?

Pathologists are increasingly using the terms "myeloid stem cell disorder" and "myeloid stem cell neoplasm" to describe reportable myeloid neoplasms. If the pathologist uses these terms and indicates the differential diagnosis includes only reportable neoplasms such as myelodysplastic syndrome, myeloproliferative neoplasm, and acute myeloid leukemia (AML), should this be accessioned as a reportable primary?

Example: The 01/2023 peripheral blood shows high grade myeloid stem cell disorder, and the differential diagnosis includes chronic myelomonocytic leukemia(CMML) and AML. The patient refused further work-up and expired several days later. No additional information is available.

We have questions regarding reportability of some terms/diagnoses after a review of EIN cases back to 2021. While some seem synonymous with EIN, others have different terms in the pathology report though the physician is treating as if they have the diagnosis.  

1. Atypical glandular epithelium

Scenario: Endometrium biopsy with ablation performed at Facility A on 8/7/2024 showed atypical glandular epithelium. Patient was sent to Facility B where the total abdominal hysterectomy/bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (TAH/BSO) on 9/20/2024 showed other reactive fibrosis and obliterated architecture compatible with history of ablation. Is atypical glandular epithelium synonymous with and coded as EIN?

2. Isthmic-type mucosa with focal severe atypia

Scenario: Endometrium biopsy showed isthmic-type mucosa with focal severe atypia.  Then Facility B did TAH/BSO that showed no evidence of high grade dysplasia, atypical hyperplasia, or carcinoma.

3. Simple hyperplasia without atypia 

Scenario: Endometrial biopsy pathology states simple hyperplasia without atypia and the TAH/BSO is either negative or has the same histology; however, the treating physician is stating EIN. 

4. EIN/CAH or focal EIN/CAH

Scenario: Biopsy showed EIN/CAH but the total abdominal hysterectomy/bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (TAH/BSO) pathology or the Mirena IUD treatment operative note states no EIN/CAH/Atypical hyperplasia. Are these reportable, similar to an in situ when the re-excision lumpectomy or mastectomy is negative or no residual disease?

The STR states that p16 can be used to code HPV-associated and HPV-independent histologies for selected sites depending on diagnosis year but contains no instructions about how to interpret p16 staining results on pathology reports. These are often stated in various ways in our area, depending on the pathology lab and different pathologists. The SSDI Manual and SEER Coding and Staging Manual each have some instructions and code definitions for p16, including:

- Code 0 for p16 expression of weak intensity or limited distribution

- Code 0: p16 Negative; Nonreactive

- Code 1: p16 Positive; Diffuse, Strong reactivity

- IHC for p16 expression is a surrogate marker for HPV infection

Example: 2023 squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva, partial vulvectomy; pathology states vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia-3, p16 immunohistochemistry demonstrates block-like expression, which supports the diagnosis. The next path report states invasive squamous cell carcinoma, stain for p16 is strong and diffuse in the lesion, supporting the above diagnosis. Neither path report specifically states "HPV-related," so are p16 "expression" and "strong and diffuse" staining enough to code the histology as 8085/3 for this case?