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We are increasingly seeing pathologists use this terminology to describe WHO G2 meningiomas, but the histology term "Atypical meningioma" is not being used, and a more specific "Histological Classification" of other WHO Grade 2 meningiomas (i.e., chordoid or clear cell meningioma) is not given. Can the combination of meningioma, WHO Grade 2 plus the histological classification listing multiple features of an atypical meningioma be used to code morphology to 9539/1? Or is this just a meningioma, NOS 9530/0 despite the WHO Grade 2 classification?

CAP Protocol for the Examination of Cystectomy Specimens From Patients With Carcinoma of the Urinary Bladder/Treatment Effect Post Neoadjuvant Chemotherapy (BCG not included) selections

o No known presurgical neoadjuvant therapy

o Complete response: Absence of histologically identifiable residual cancer cells and extensive fibrosis of the tumor bed after presurgical neoadjuvant therapy (TRG1)

o Strong response: Predominant fibrosis of the tumor bed, with residual cancer cells occupying less than 50% of this area (TRG2)

o Weak or no response: Residual cancer cells occupying ≥50% of the tumor bed or absence of regressive changes (TRG3)

o Other (specify): _________________

SEER Coding Instruction for Site-Specific Codes for Neoadjuvant Therapy Treatment Effect - Schemas: All Other Schemas selections

0 Neoadjuvant therapy not given/no known presurgical therapy

1 Complete pathological response

Present: No viable cancer cells/no residual invasive carcinoma identified

Residual in situ carcinoma only

2 Near complete pathological response

Present: Single cells or rare small groups of invasive cancer cells

3 Partial or minimal pathological response

Present: Residual invasive cancer with evident tumor regression, but more than single cells or rare small groups of cancer cells

4 Poor or no pathological response

Absent: Extensive residual cancer with no evident tumor regression

6 Neoadjuvant therapy completed and surgical resection performed, response not documented or unknown

Cannot be determined

7 Neoadjuvant therapy completed and planned surgical resection not performed

9 Unknown if neoadjuvant therapy performed

Unknown if planned surgical procedure performed after completion of neoadjuvant therapy

Death Certificate only (DCO)

In previous STR versions and the ICD-O-3.2, SFT/hemangiopericytoma, WHO G1 is 8815/0 and only SFT/hemangiopericytoma, WHO G2 was 8815/1. However, Table 6 (Non-Malignant CNS, Specific Histologies, NOS, and Subtypes/Variants) was changed in the 2025 updates to indicate both G1 and G2 SFT/hemangiopericytoma are 8815/1.

No date range was provided for this change in the STR and the behavior of this tumor was not updated by the standard setters in other references (i.e., ICD-O-3.2). The behavior of G1 SFT/hemangiopericytoma was not updated in the 2025 ICD-O-3.2 updates. If the ICD-O-3.2 was the source of this change, should this have been documented in the 2025 NAACCR Implementation Guidelines? However, the 2025 NAACCR Implementation Guidelines indicates, "There are no ICD-O-3 changes for 2025." Is this behavior change in 2025 Solid Tumor Rules updates an error? Should the behavior of SFT/hemangiopericytoma, WHO G1 remain /0? 

One of the largest hospital systems in our area includes "INDIGENOUS-LATINO/A OR INDIGENOUS-LATINX" and "FIRST NATIONS" as dropdown items for patients to self-select for race/ethnicity. This hospital system serves 51 hospitals and 1,000 clinics across Alaska, California, Montana, New Mexico, Oregon, Texas, and Washington. If "INDIGENOUS-LATINO/A OR INDIGENOUS-LATINX" is the only item selected with no additional text info available, how should Race 1 and Spanish Surname or Origin be coded? If "FIRST NATIONS" is the only item selected without additional text info available, should Race 1 be coded as 03?

The patient was diagnosed with a left testis primary in the early 1980s that did not include a seminoma component per the information available. The slides were not available for review. In 2024, the patient was found to have a metastatic seminoma involving multiple pelvic lymph nodes and the prostate. The right testicular ultrasound was negative. The managing physician noted this was both a "relapsed seminoma" and a "Stage IIC seminoma."

Should the new diagnosis of metastatic seminoma be accessioned as a new primary based on the histology differences? Or is this situation similar to SINQ 20160073 in which this is a single primary even though the metastases are a distinctly different histology?

In 01/2023, right lower lobectomy final diagnosis proved a single adenocarcinoma tumor with the histological patterns described as acinar (20%), papillary (30%) and solid; complex glands (cribriform and fused glands) (50%). There is no H Rule applicable to a complex glandular pattern adenocarcinoma. Is this equivalent to a solid predominant adenocarcinoma (8230) per Rule H7? Or is the predominant adenocarcinoma a mixed subtype coded as 8255 per Rule H9?