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The patient was diagnosed with a left testis primary in the early 1980s that did not include a seminoma component per the information available. The slides were not available for review. In 2024, the patient was found to have a metastatic seminoma involving multiple pelvic lymph nodes and the prostate. The right testicular ultrasound was negative. The managing physician noted this was both a "relapsed seminoma" and a "Stage IIC seminoma."

Should the new diagnosis of metastatic seminoma be accessioned as a new primary based on the histology differences? Or is this situation similar to SINQ 20160073 in which this is a single primary even though the metastases are a distinctly different histology?

Pathologists are increasingly using the terms "myeloid stem cell disorder" and "myeloid stem cell neoplasm" to describe reportable myeloid neoplasms. If the pathologist uses these terms and indicates the differential diagnosis includes only reportable neoplasms such as myelodysplastic syndrome, myeloproliferative neoplasm, and acute myeloid leukemia (AML), should this be accessioned as a reportable primary?

Example: The 01/2023 peripheral blood shows high grade myeloid stem cell disorder, and the differential diagnosis includes chronic myelomonocytic leukemia(CMML) and AML. The patient refused further work-up and expired several days later. No additional information is available.

In 01/2023, right lower lobectomy final diagnosis proved a single adenocarcinoma tumor with the histological patterns described as acinar (20%), papillary (30%) and solid; complex glands (cribriform and fused glands) (50%). There is no H Rule applicable to a complex glandular pattern adenocarcinoma. Is this equivalent to a solid predominant adenocarcinoma (8230) per Rule H7? Or is the predominant adenocarcinoma a mixed subtype coded as 8255 per Rule H9?

The bone marrow was involved by lambda-restricted atypical B-cell and plasma cell populations with MYD88 mutation. Together these populations represent 10-15% of the bone marrow cellularity. While the bone marrow biopsy pathology alone did not provide a reportable diagnosis, the oncologist clinically diagnosed this as smoldering WM in the medical record.

Is a diagnosis of smoldering WM similar to a diagnosis of smoldering multiple myeloma (MM), a reportable Heme neoplasm, since smoldering neoplasms may be considered to meet the neoplasm’s threshold in the bone marrow but is otherwise asymptomatic?

According to the AJCC CAnswer Forum (https://cancerbulletin.facs.org/forums/node/160948), celiac axis nodes are considered regional for the liver. However, for liver primaries, Extent of Disease (EOD) regional lymph nodes list the following as regional lymph nodes:

• Caval
• Hepatic, NOS
  • Hepatic artery
  • Hepatic pedicle
  • Inferior vena cava
  • Porta hepatis (portal) (hilar) [in hilus of liver]
• Periportal
• Portal vein
• Regional lymph node(s), NOS

Based on this information, should celiac axis lymph nodes be considered as regional for liver primaries when coding EOD Regional Nodes?

One of the largest hospital systems in our area includes "INDIGENOUS-LATINO/A OR INDIGENOUS-LATINX" and "FIRST NATIONS" as dropdown items for patients to self-select for race/ethnicity. This hospital system serves 51 hospitals and 1,000 clinics across Alaska, California, Montana, New Mexico, Oregon, Texas, and Washington. If "INDIGENOUS-LATINO/A OR INDIGENOUS-LATINX" is the only item selected with no additional text info available, how should Race 1 and Spanish Surname or Origin be coded? If "FIRST NATIONS" is the only item selected without additional text info available, should Race 1 be coded as 03?

Lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM) became reportable (9174/3) for diagnoses 2023 and later. While this neoplasm was only added to the Lung schema in the Solid Tumor Rules manual, this is a mesenchymal neoplasm which may arise outside of the lung and the reportability change was not limited to LAM of the lung.

How should primary site be coded when a left pelvic lymph node dissection for an unrelated high-grade serous carcinoma of the right fallopian tube incidentally proved LAM in the pelvic lymph nodes? The pelvic lymph nodes were the only site of involvement; there was no evidence of lung involvement. As this is a mesenchymal tumor, should the primary site default to C499 (Soft tissue, NOS) according to the default primary site rule for sarcomas described in the SEER Manual? Or should the primary site be coded to C775 (Pelvic lymph nodes) as this was the only proven site of involvement?